Timeline for Infinite loop of a p-completed specta vs p-completion of infinite loop of the spectra
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
6 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Apr 7, 2014 at 2:31 | answer | added | Peter May | timeline score: 4 | |
| Apr 7, 2014 at 0:57 | history | edited | Todd Trimble | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
small grammatical corrections
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| Apr 3, 2014 at 8:16 | answer | added | user43326 | timeline score: 2 | |
| Apr 2, 2014 at 19:28 | comment | added | Sam Nariman | What are those assumptions? Do you know any possible references? | |
| Apr 1, 2014 at 17:28 | comment | added | user43326 | Under mild assumptions, both $p$-completions complete the homotopy groups at $p$. Since the homotopy groups of the infinite loop spaces is those of the spectrum, you get the equivalence that you want (under those assumptions). | |
| Mar 26, 2014 at 21:47 | history | asked | Sam Nariman | CC BY-SA 3.0 |