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Mar 26, 2014 at 18:35 comment added Joël (i) has definitely not been proved. It would be a tremendous progress to know that there is only a finite number of counter-example to the Riemann hypothesis.
Mar 26, 2014 at 15:35 vote accept barak manos
Mar 26, 2014 at 13:06 comment added barak manos @Per Alexandersson: What I meant is, that a negative answer to the question "has any of them been proved?" would not resolve anything ("no, none of them has been proved" is equivalent to "everything remains as is").
Mar 26, 2014 at 12:55 comment added Per Alexandersson @barakmanos: Ah, yes, 0 is a finite number also. That is what made me confused. So, your question is: Can there be an infinite number of counter-examples to RH, and "can there be an infinite number of counter-examples to RH on a vertical line". This formulation (I think) is much more clear.
Mar 26, 2014 at 12:22 comment added Dietrich Burde See also mathoverflow.net/questions/161442/….
Mar 26, 2014 at 12:02 answer added Denis Chaperon de Lauzières timeline score: 8
Mar 26, 2014 at 11:40 comment added barak manos @Per Alexandersson: Thanks. First of all, a negative answer would simply "leave it as is" (would not resolve RH), but that's just a logical misinterpretation of yours I suppose. Second, I can understand why proving the first fact might resolve RH (although it still requires an explanation). But why would proving the second fact resolve RH? If there is one such line (or even an infinite number of such lines), there can still be non-trivial zeros on other lines.
Mar 26, 2014 at 11:35 comment added Per Alexandersson Any positive or negative answer to your questions would resolve the Riemann hypothesis, so no, this has not been proved.
Mar 26, 2014 at 11:20 history asked barak manos CC BY-SA 3.0