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Mar 9, 2014 at 23:57 comment added Hengyu Zhou It's a typo. I mean $P(X_{t-}=0)=0$.
Mar 9, 2014 at 2:21 comment added Bjørn Kjos-Hanssen Is that a typo, "$P(X_{t-})=0$"?
Mar 9, 2014 at 1:48 comment added Hengyu Zhou The motivation of this question is as follows. Assume $X_{t}$ is a Levy process. For any fixed $t$, is $P(X_{t-})=0$? Maybe you already answer my questions. But I am still not sure what's happening when $X_{t}$ is a pure jump process.
Mar 9, 2014 at 1:39 comment added Hengyu Zhou Yes, you are right. If the generating triplet of $X_{t}$ is $(\sigma\neq 0, \gamma, \nu)$, $P(X_{t}=x)=0$. If the generating triplet of $X_{t}$ is $(0, 0, \nu)$, $P(X_{t}=x)$ is dependent on the measure $\nu$. If $\nu$ is absolute with respect to Lebesgue measure, $P(X_{t}=x)$ is still equal to 0.
Mar 9, 2014 at 1:39 history edited Bjørn Kjos-Hanssen CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 9, 2014 at 1:31 history answered Bjørn Kjos-Hanssen CC BY-SA 3.0