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Jul 30, 2022 at 2:26 comment added PrimeRibeyeDeal You may be interested in this paper, which investigates the consequences of treating tensor/hom as a left/right derived functor, anti-respectively.
Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58 history edited CommunityBot
replaced http://mathoverflow.net/ with https://mathoverflow.net/
Mar 9, 2014 at 16:26 comment added Pablo Zadunaisky Well, yes, in this way you the right derived functors of tensor products. But since Tensor products are right exact, its $i$-th right derived functor is identically zero, save for $i = 0$.
Mar 7, 2014 at 23:11 comment added Li Yutong I see where I was wrong. But why derived tensor has to be a left derived functor? It could well be a right derived functor as I defined -- this make sense, but maybe meaningless -- I don't have any idea about this...
Mar 7, 2014 at 23:01 vote accept Li Yutong
Mar 7, 2014 at 19:52 answer added Denis Nardin timeline score: 3
Mar 7, 2014 at 14:18 comment added user36931 Ok, I still don't understand, but my advice is really to revisit some basic points. Why do you think this is a RIGHT derived functor????? derived tensor product is a LEFT derived functor.
Mar 7, 2014 at 14:17 answer added answer_bot timeline score: 3
Mar 7, 2014 at 13:56 history asked Li Yutong CC BY-SA 3.0