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Mar 6, 2014 at 16:01 answer added abx timeline score: 10
Mar 6, 2014 at 15:59 review Close votes
Mar 6, 2014 at 16:19
Mar 6, 2014 at 15:54 comment added beginigeb Sorry I forgot to say $X$ is a hypersurface
Mar 6, 2014 at 15:54 review First posts
Mar 6, 2014 at 15:57
Mar 6, 2014 at 15:53 history edited beginigeb CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 6, 2014 at 15:42 comment added Jack Huizenga Consider $\mathbb{P}^1\times \mathbb{P}^1$ embedded by an "unbalanced" divisor. The involution does not act trivially on the divisor.
Mar 6, 2014 at 15:41 comment added Jérémy Blanc There is no reason, except in the case where the embedding is canonical or anticanonical. Think for example to a cubic curve in $\mathbb P^2$
Mar 6, 2014 at 15:38 history asked beginigeb CC BY-SA 3.0