No, it is not true.
It suffices to show that the complement is not necessarily Borel. Let $B=X\setminus A$, which is a general Borel set. We have $$ \{x:H_0x\not\subseteq A\} = \{x:H_0x\cap B\ne\varnothing\} = \{x: (\exists h\in H_0)(hx\in B)\} = \{x: x\in H_0^{-1}B\} = H_0^{-1}B $$ Let $G=H_0^{-1}$ which is again a general Borel set since $G^{-1}=H_0$. Then we want to determine whether $GB$ must be Borel. But let the group be addition on $\mathbb R$: Erdös and Stone showed that the sum of Borel sets is not necessarily BorelErdös and Stone showed that the sum of Borel sets is not necessarily Borel.