Equation $\Delta u=0$ is called the Laplace equation, btw. The
Edit. The answer to your question is yesno. The standard reference is Garnett, Bounded analytic functions, Ch II, section 1Consider $f(z)=1/(z+i)$. On the real line it belongs to $L^p$ with any $p>1$. This is also true forIn the upper half-plane it does not belong to any $p=\infty$$L^p$ if (maximum principle)$p\leq 2$. If you want a real function, take a real or imaginary part of this.