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Oct 17, 2017 at 14:49 answer added user21820 timeline score: 1
Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58 history edited CommunityBot
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Feb 23, 2014 at 23:13 history edited Andrés E. Caicedo CC BY-SA 3.0
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Feb 23, 2014 at 23:06 vote accept Andrés E. Caicedo
Feb 23, 2014 at 23:00 comment added Andrés E. Caicedo @GeraldEdgar Yes. Conversely, Bjørn's measure-theoretic answer can be restated in terms of category and (Cohen) 1-generic reals.
Feb 22, 2014 at 21:59 answer added Denis Hirschfeldt timeline score: 31
Feb 22, 2014 at 21:05 comment added Gerald Edgar Alternately, you can use "measure zero". More generally, given any any measure zero set $Z$ and any countable set $Q$, there is $r$ so that $Z+r$ misses $Q$.
Feb 22, 2014 at 20:58 answer added Anthony Quas timeline score: 29
Feb 22, 2014 at 20:19 answer added Bjørn Kjos-Hanssen timeline score: 10
Feb 22, 2014 at 19:31 history edited Nate Eldredge CC BY-SA 3.0
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Feb 22, 2014 at 19:30 history edited Andrés E. Caicedo CC BY-SA 3.0
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Feb 22, 2014 at 19:24 history asked Andrés E. Caicedo CC BY-SA 3.0