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David Roberts
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I have proved this equality by means of Cauchy’s Theorem applied to an adequate function. Since my solution is too long to post it here, I posted it in arXiv, you can get it at http://arxiv.org/abs/1402.3830:

  • Juan Arias de Reyna, Computation of a Definite Integral, arXiv:1402.3830.

The function $$G(z)=\frac{\log(1+(1+i)\,f(z)\,)}z$$ where $$f(x)=\frac{\operatorname{arctanh}(x)-\arctan(x)}{\pi}$$ extended analytically.

I have proved this equality by means of Cauchy’s Theorem applied to an adequate function. Since my solution is too long to post it here, I posted it in arXiv, you can get it at http://arxiv.org/abs/1402.3830

The function $$G(z)=\frac{\log(1+(1+i)\,f(z)\,)}z$$ where $$f(x)=\frac{\operatorname{arctanh}(x)-\arctan(x)}{\pi}$$ extended analytically.

I have proved this equality by means of Cauchy’s Theorem applied to an adequate function. Since my solution is too long to post it here, I posted it in arXiv:

  • Juan Arias de Reyna, Computation of a Definite Integral, arXiv:1402.3830.

The function $$G(z)=\frac{\log(1+(1+i)\,f(z)\,)}z$$ where $$f(x)=\frac{\operatorname{arctanh}(x)-\arctan(x)}{\pi}$$ extended analytically.

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user9072
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I have proved this equality by means of Cauchy’s Theorem applied to an adequate function. Since my solution is too long to post it here, I posted it in arXiv, you can get it at http://arxiv.org/abs/1402.3830

The function $$G(z)=\frac{\log(1+(1+i)\,f(z)\,)}z$$ where $$f(x)=\frac{\text{arctanh}(x)-\arctan(x)}{\pi}$$$$f(x)=\frac{\operatorname{arctanh}(x)-\arctan(x)}{\pi}$$ extended analytically.

I have proved this equality by means of Cauchy’s Theorem applied to an adequate function. Since my solution is too long to post it here, I posted it in arXiv, you can get it at http://arxiv.org/abs/1402.3830

The function $$G(z)=\frac{\log(1+(1+i)\,f(z)\,)}z$$ where $$f(x)=\frac{\text{arctanh}(x)-\arctan(x)}{\pi}$$ extended analytically.

I have proved this equality by means of Cauchy’s Theorem applied to an adequate function. Since my solution is too long to post it here, I posted it in arXiv, you can get it at http://arxiv.org/abs/1402.3830

The function $$G(z)=\frac{\log(1+(1+i)\,f(z)\,)}z$$ where $$f(x)=\frac{\operatorname{arctanh}(x)-\arctan(x)}{\pi}$$ extended analytically.

I have proved this equality by means of Cauchy’s Theorem applied to an adequate function. Since my solution is too long to post it here, I posted it in arXiv, you can get it at http://arxiv.org/abs/1402.3830

The function $$G(z)=\frac{\log(1+(1+i)\,f(z)\,)}z$$ where $$f(x)=\frac{arctanh x -arctan x}{\pi}$$$$f(x)=\frac{\text{arctanh}(x)-\arctan(x)}{\pi}$$ extended analytically.

I have proved this equality by means of Cauchy’s Theorem applied to an adequate function. Since my solution is too long to post it here, I posted it in arXiv, you can get it at http://arxiv.org/abs/1402.3830

The function $$G(z)=\frac{\log(1+(1+i)\,f(z)\,)}z$$ where $$f(x)=\frac{arctanh x -arctan x}{\pi}$$ extended analytically.

I have proved this equality by means of Cauchy’s Theorem applied to an adequate function. Since my solution is too long to post it here, I posted it in arXiv, you can get it at http://arxiv.org/abs/1402.3830

The function $$G(z)=\frac{\log(1+(1+i)\,f(z)\,)}z$$ where $$f(x)=\frac{\text{arctanh}(x)-\arctan(x)}{\pi}$$ extended analytically.

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juan
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juan
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