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don't use '<' and '>' for delimiters; not only do they cause parsing problems here, they are the wrong symbols to use in LaTeX; use \langle and \rangle
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Arturo Magidin
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In all questions suppose $G$ metabelian p-group such that

  • G is not regular ( so $cl(G) \geq p$ ), G is not a wreath product;

  • $Z(G) \leq \phi(G)$.

  1. Let $M$ normal abelian subgroup of $G$ such that $\frac{G}{M} \cong C_{p^{n}}$ with $n \geq 2$. So it exists an element $g \in G - M$ such that $G=M<g>$$G=M\langle g\rangle$ and $g^{p^{n}} \in M$. Looking at $G'=[G,G]$ i, I showed that $G'=[M,g].$ Is it true, under these assumptions, that $C_{G}(G')=MZ(G)$ ?

  2. If the answer is no, is there some other assumption for which my thesis is true?

  3. In every metabelian p-group G, since G' is abelian, we have that $G' \leq C_{G}(G')$. Are there suitable assumptions for which $G' = C_{G}(G')$? I know that this is true when $G'$ is maximal (but this means G cyclic) and when $G'$ is maximal over normal abelian subgroups.

I edited my post since it was not clear, i apologize for this fact, and i'm grateful for your attention to my problem.

Best regards

Marco, PhD student

In all questions suppose $G$ metabelian p-group such that

  • G is not regular ( so $cl(G) \geq p$ ), G is not a wreath product;

  • $Z(G) \leq \phi(G)$.

  1. Let $M$ normal abelian subgroup of $G$ such that $\frac{G}{M} \cong C_{p^{n}}$ with $n \geq 2$. So it exists an element $g \in G - M$ such that $G=M<g>$ and $g^{p^{n}} \in M$. Looking at $G'=[G,G]$ i showed that $G'=[M,g].$ Is it true, under these assumptions, that $C_{G}(G')=MZ(G)$ ?

  2. If the answer is no, is there some other assumption for which my thesis is true?

  3. In every metabelian p-group G, since G' is abelian, we have that $G' \leq C_{G}(G')$. Are there suitable assumptions for which $G' = C_{G}(G')$? I know that this is true when $G'$ is maximal (but this means G cyclic) and when $G'$ is maximal over normal abelian subgroups.

I edited my post since it was not clear, i apologize for this fact, and i'm grateful for your attention to my problem.

Best regards

Marco, PhD student

In all questions suppose $G$ metabelian p-group such that

  • G is not regular ( so $cl(G) \geq p$ ), G is not a wreath product;

  • $Z(G) \leq \phi(G)$.

  1. Let $M$ normal abelian subgroup of $G$ such that $\frac{G}{M} \cong C_{p^{n}}$ with $n \geq 2$. So it exists an element $g \in G - M$ such that $G=M\langle g\rangle$ and $g^{p^{n}} \in M$. Looking at $G'=[G,G]$, I showed that $G'=[M,g].$ Is it true, under these assumptions, that $C_{G}(G')=MZ(G)$ ?

  2. If the answer is no, is there some other assumption for which my thesis is true?

  3. In every metabelian p-group G, since G' is abelian, we have that $G' \leq C_{G}(G')$. Are there suitable assumptions for which $G' = C_{G}(G')$? I know that this is true when $G'$ is maximal (but this means G cyclic) and when $G'$ is maximal over normal abelian subgroups.

I edited my post since it was not clear, i apologize for this fact, and i'm grateful for your attention to my problem.

Best regards

Marco, PhD student

added 523 characters in body
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SayIn all questions suppose $G$ a $p$metabelian p-group, $M$ normal abelian subgroup of G such that $$\frac{G}{M} \cong C_{p^{n}}.$$

It exists $g \in G - M $ such that $G=M\langle g\rangle$.

I showed that the derived subgroup is $G' = [M,g]$.

  • G is not regular ( so $cl(G) \geq p$ ), G is not a wreath product;

  • $Z(G) \leq \phi(G)$.

  1. Let $M$ normal abelian subgroup of $G$ such that $\frac{G}{M} \cong C_{p^{n}}$ with $n \geq 2$. So it exists an element $g \in G - M$ such that $G=M<g>$ and $g^{p^{n}} \in M$. Looking at $G'=[G,G]$ i showed that $G'=[M,g].$ Is it true, under these assumptions, that $C_{G}(G')=MZ(G)$ ?

  2. WhenIf the answer is this assertionno, is there some other assumption for which my thesis is true?

  3. In aevery metabelian $p$p-group G, $G'$since G' is abelian, so it's contained in its centralizer, rightwe have that $G' \leq C_{G}(G')$. Are there suitable assumptions for which $G' = C_{G}(G')$? WhenI know that this is it self centralizing?true when $G'$ is maximal (but this means G cyclic) and when $G'$ is maximal over normal abelian subgroups.

I edited my post since it was not clear, i apologize for this fact, and i'm grateful for your attention to my problem.

Best regards

Marco, PhD student.

Say $G$ a $p$-group, $M$ normal abelian subgroup of G such that $$\frac{G}{M} \cong C_{p^{n}}.$$

It exists $g \in G - M $ such that $G=M\langle g\rangle$.

I showed that the derived subgroup is $G' = [M,g]$.

  1. Is it true that $C_{G}(G')=MZ(G)$ ?

  2. When is this assertion true?

  3. In a metabelian $p$-group, $G'$ is abelian, so it's contained in its centralizer, right? When is it self centralizing?

Best regards

Marco, PhD student.

In all questions suppose $G$ metabelian p-group such that

  • G is not regular ( so $cl(G) \geq p$ ), G is not a wreath product;

  • $Z(G) \leq \phi(G)$.

  1. Let $M$ normal abelian subgroup of $G$ such that $\frac{G}{M} \cong C_{p^{n}}$ with $n \geq 2$. So it exists an element $g \in G - M$ such that $G=M<g>$ and $g^{p^{n}} \in M$. Looking at $G'=[G,G]$ i showed that $G'=[M,g].$ Is it true, under these assumptions, that $C_{G}(G')=MZ(G)$ ?

  2. If the answer is no, is there some other assumption for which my thesis is true?

  3. In every metabelian p-group G, since G' is abelian, we have that $G' \leq C_{G}(G')$. Are there suitable assumptions for which $G' = C_{G}(G')$? I know that this is true when $G'$ is maximal (but this means G cyclic) and when $G'$ is maximal over normal abelian subgroups.

I edited my post since it was not clear, i apologize for this fact, and i'm grateful for your attention to my problem.

Best regards

Marco, PhD student

some notational book-keeping
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Arturo Magidin
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Say G$G$ a p$p$-group, M$M$ normal abelian subgroup of G such that $\frac{G}{M} \cong C_{p^{n}}.$$$\frac{G}{M} \cong C_{p^{n}}.$$

It exists $g \in G - M $ such that $G=M<g>.$$G=M\langle g\rangle$.

I showed that the derived subgroup is $G' = [M,g].$$G' = [M,g]$.

  1. Is it true that $C_{G}(G')=MZ(G) ?$$C_{G}(G')=MZ(G)$ ?

  2. When is this assertion true?

  3. In a metabelian p$p$-group G', $G'$ is abelian, so it's contained in its centralizer, right? When is it self centralizing?

Best regards

Marco, PhD student.

Say G a p-group, M normal abelian subgroup of G such that $\frac{G}{M} \cong C_{p^{n}}.$

It exists $g \in G - M $ such that $G=M<g>.$

I showed that the derived subgroup is $G' = [M,g].$

  1. Is it true that $C_{G}(G')=MZ(G) ?$

  2. When is this assertion true?

  3. In a metabelian p-group G' is abelian, so it's contained in its centralizer, right? When is it self centralizing?

Best regards

Marco, PhD student.

Say $G$ a $p$-group, $M$ normal abelian subgroup of G such that $$\frac{G}{M} \cong C_{p^{n}}.$$

It exists $g \in G - M $ such that $G=M\langle g\rangle$.

I showed that the derived subgroup is $G' = [M,g]$.

  1. Is it true that $C_{G}(G')=MZ(G)$ ?

  2. When is this assertion true?

  3. In a metabelian $p$-group, $G'$ is abelian, so it's contained in its centralizer, right? When is it self centralizing?

Best regards

Marco, PhD student.

added 46 characters in body
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