Timeline for Prove that when converge, the following expansions are equal
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
16 events
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Dec 18, 2021 at 15:26 | comment | added | Richard Stanley | Note that if $x$ is a nonnegative integer, then $f_1(x)=f(x)$. | |
Dec 18, 2021 at 14:16 | history | edited | Martin Sleziak |
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Dec 11, 2021 at 20:04 | history | bumped | CommunityBot | This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed. | |
Aug 13, 2021 at 20:04 | history | bumped | CommunityBot | This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed. | |
Apr 15, 2021 at 19:53 | history | bumped | CommunityBot | This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed. | |
Dec 16, 2020 at 18:03 | history | bumped | CommunityBot | This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed. | |
Aug 18, 2020 at 17:03 | history | bumped | CommunityBot | This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed. | |
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Dec 22, 2019 at 15:03 | history | bumped | CommunityBot | This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed. | |
Nov 22, 2019 at 14:28 | history | edited | Max Alekseyev |
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Nov 22, 2019 at 3:23 | answer | added | Max Alekseyev | timeline score: 1 | |
Feb 14, 2014 at 8:19 | review | Close votes | |||
Feb 14, 2014 at 10:18 | |||||
Feb 12, 2014 at 9:44 | comment | added | Greg Martin | Presumably each of these formulas came from somewhere - some method of representing $f(x)$? If so, why don't those sources already prove that the expressions are equal where defined? | |
Feb 12, 2014 at 9:15 | comment | added | Daniel Litt | I don't see why this is being downvoted. This doesn't seem trivial and the motivation Anixx gives in the comment is absolutely fine. | |
Feb 12, 2014 at 8:41 | comment | added | Anixx | @UwF the motivation is as follows: the first one is the Newton series, but it is not applicable to the cases where the function has poles. The third one can be easily generalized to the cases where the function has poles in integer points and also it can be made symmetric around zero. So the third one is more general, while the first one is easier to analyze convergence. The third one also converges much faster. My interest about the second one is purely curiosity. | |
Feb 12, 2014 at 8:15 | history | asked | Anixx | CC BY-SA 3.0 |