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Sep 1, 2016 at 7:11 answer added Akira Masuoka timeline score: 3
Feb 7, 2014 at 20:46 vote accept Jesko Hüttenhain
Feb 7, 2014 at 20:46 comment added Jesko Hüttenhain Anways, since this is in Mr. Humphreys' book, my question is void (and more importantly, my confusion lifted). I will accept Peter Crooks' answer so this is no longer an open question. Thanks everyone.
Feb 7, 2014 at 20:14 history edited Jesko Hüttenhain CC BY-SA 3.0
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Feb 7, 2014 at 20:11 comment added Jesko Hüttenhain @Jim Humphreys and Piotr Achinger: My previous reference was this paper by Chevalley, see Proposition 8 and his comment in the very last paragraph below that. I apparently skipped over the part where he requires the subgroup to be normal.
Feb 7, 2014 at 20:04 history edited Jesko Hüttenhain CC BY-SA 3.0
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Feb 7, 2014 at 19:14 comment added Jim Humphreys @Daniel: I basically copied Chevalley/Borel. The idea is elementary (once Chevalley thought of it): realize $H$ as isotropy group of a line in a representation $G \rightarrow \mathrm{GL}(V)$, then pass to the projective space $P(V)$ and embed $G/H$ there.
Feb 7, 2014 at 18:12 comment added Daniel Barter This is proved in linear algebraic groups by Humphreys. The basic idea is that you can find a representation of $G$ such that the stabilizer of a specific line is exactly $H$
Feb 7, 2014 at 17:43 comment added Piotr Achinger And for general $G$ it's true if $H$ is normal ;)
Feb 7, 2014 at 16:45 comment added Jim Humphreys @Jesko: Note that working over the complex field is unimpotant here. In general, the quotient of a reductive group by a closed subgroup is affine if and only if the subgroup is also reductive.
Feb 7, 2014 at 16:20 answer added Peter Crooks timeline score: 4
Feb 7, 2014 at 16:17 comment added Peter Crooks I think you want to claim that $G/H$ must be quasi-projective.
Feb 7, 2014 at 15:43 comment added David E Speyer The statement isn't true. Take $G=SL_2$ and $H = \left( \begin{smallmatrix} 1 & \ast \\ 0 & 1 \end{smallmatrix} \right)$. The quotient $G/H$ is isomorphic to $\mathbb{A}^2 \setminus \{ (0,0) \}$, which is not affine.
Feb 7, 2014 at 15:33 history asked Jesko Hüttenhain CC BY-SA 3.0