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Jun 28, 2015 at 20:03 comment added user75459 This nice argument needs a little more details, what is the sufficient condition for general random variable $X,V,Z$ (rather than binary one) to satisfy $I(X;Z|V)=0$ $\Leftrightarrow$ $I(X;Z)=0$? i.e, what is the converse proof? We have already known the Fenchel extension of Caratheodory theorem as you asserted. Which property of boundary of Conv($\mathcal{A}$) makes you choose $p(z_2)$ from it?
Feb 5, 2014 at 1:15 vote accept math-Student
Feb 4, 2014 at 21:30 history edited math-Student CC BY-SA 3.0
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Feb 4, 2014 at 17:39 history answered math-Student CC BY-SA 3.0