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Jun 15, 2020 at 7:27 history edited CommunityBot
Commonmark migration
Dec 2, 2016 at 0:41 answer added Goldstern timeline score: 2
Feb 8, 2014 at 0:20 comment added Ameen @EmilJeřábek Yes, the inclusion map of $\mathcal B$ is not onto but this is not enough to say they are not isomorphic, because inclusion map of odd numbers in $\Bbb N$ is also not onto but they are isomorphic.
Feb 3, 2014 at 20:38 comment added Emil Jeřábek As for (2), $\mathcal A/N$ is itself an atomless algebra. I see no reason why it should be isomorphic to $\mathcal B$. Certainly the natural inclusion of $\mathcal B$ in $\mathcal A/N$ is not onto.
Feb 3, 2014 at 20:10 history edited j.c. CC BY-SA 3.0
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Feb 3, 2014 at 19:36 vote accept Ameen
Feb 3, 2014 at 17:07 answer added Joel David Hamkins timeline score: 6
Feb 3, 2014 at 17:02 history edited Ameen CC BY-SA 3.0
edited body
Feb 3, 2014 at 17:02 comment added Ameen @JoelDavidHamkins Oh yes, exactly. Thanks for letting me know. I will correct it.
Feb 3, 2014 at 17:00 comment added Joel David Hamkins Do you mean $\mu(\partial(A))=0$ in the definition of Jordan measurable?
Feb 3, 2014 at 15:32 history asked Ameen CC BY-SA 3.0