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Feb 2, 2014 at 14:50 vote accept Mahdi Majidi-Zolbanin
Feb 2, 2014 at 14:16 comment added Jason Starr @user76758: Yes, of course I should have seen that. If you annihilate $1$, then you annihilate the entire ring.
Feb 2, 2014 at 14:14 comment added Jason Starr @ACL: I think we probably both posted our comments about "$1$" at the same time: the element $1$ in $B$ shows that $B\otimes_A \mathbb{Q}$ cannot vanish.
S Feb 2, 2014 at 9:33 history suggested gaoxinge CC BY-SA 3.0
more clear
Feb 2, 2014 at 8:57 review Suggested edits
S Feb 2, 2014 at 9:33
Feb 2, 2014 at 7:21 comment added user76758 @JasonStarr: I was looking at the distinguished element 1 in $B$ (which is what makes $B$ more tractable than a random $A$-module).
Feb 2, 2014 at 6:54 answer added anonymous timeline score: 4
Feb 2, 2014 at 6:06 comment added ACL @JasonStarr: The constant sequence $(1)_p$ is obviously non-torsion.
Feb 2, 2014 at 5:35 comment added Jason Starr @user76758: Here is a direct way of getting a contradiction from vanishing of $B\otimes_A \mathbb{Q}$, rather than using ultrafilters or the vanishing of $B[1/N]$ (which I still do not immediately see). The natural ring homomorphism $\mathbb{Z} \to B$ is clearly injective. Thus, by flatness of $\mathbb{Q}$ over $\mathbb{Z}$, also the induced homomorphism $\mathbb{Q} \to B\otimes_A \mathbb{Q}$ is injective. Therefore $B\otimes_A \mathbb{Q}$ is nonvanishing.
Feb 2, 2014 at 5:28 comment added Jason Starr @user76758: How do you go from the assertion that $B\otimes_A \mathbb{Q}$ vanishes to the assertion that there exists an integer $N$ that annihilates $B$? Of course you can directly show that $B\otimes_A \mathbb{Q}$ is nonzero using ultrafilters, etc. But I do not see how to directly conclude that $B$ is annihilated by a single integer $N$.
Feb 2, 2014 at 5:15 answer added Jason Starr timeline score: 4
Feb 2, 2014 at 4:42 comment added user76758 Let $A = \mathbf{Z}$, $B = \prod_p \mathbf{F}_p$. Assume the non-flat locus $Y$ in Spec($B$) is closed. It contains the evident clopen points Spec($\mathbf{F}_p$), so if $J$ is an ideal in $B$ cutting out $Y$ then $J$ has vanishing image in each direct factor ring $\mathbf{F}_p$, so $J=0$. Thus, $B$ would be nowhere flat over $A$, so $B \otimes_A \mathbf{Q}$ would vanish and hence $B[1/N]=0$ for some $N > 0$. But this is false.
Feb 2, 2014 at 3:11 history edited Mahdi Majidi-Zolbanin CC BY-SA 3.0
added 64 characters in body
Feb 2, 2014 at 3:04 history asked Mahdi Majidi-Zolbanin CC BY-SA 3.0