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Jan 29, 2014 at 0:03 vote accept Noah Schweber
Jan 28, 2014 at 19:17 answer added Bjørn Kjos-Hanssen timeline score: 5
Jan 28, 2014 at 18:58 answer added Joel David Hamkins timeline score: 10
Jan 28, 2014 at 12:04 answer added Mohammad Golshani timeline score: 11
Jan 28, 2014 at 9:18 comment added Mohammad Golshani I think in general if $G\times H$ is $P\times P-$generic over $V$ then $V[G]\cap V[H]=V.$
Jan 28, 2014 at 6:08 history asked Noah Schweber CC BY-SA 3.0