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Jan 18, 2014 at 16:17 vote accept Ayman Moussa
Jan 17, 2014 at 15:01 answer added Vidit Nanda timeline score: 1
Jan 17, 2014 at 11:06 comment added Vidit Nanda Yes. And note also that $\phi$ must have a $\mathscr{C}^1$ inverse by assumption with a Lipschitz constant of its own, and so you can always map the covering along this inverse to get a similar inequality bounding $N(\epsilon,\phi(K))$ from the other side.
Jan 17, 2014 at 9:06 comment added Ayman Moussa Okay, to be sure to understand, what you're saying is that if $C$ is the Lipschitz constant of $\phi$, we have always $N(\varepsilon,\varphi(K)) \leq N(\frac{\varepsilon}{C},K)$, just by transfering the covering, right ?
Jan 17, 2014 at 3:20 comment added Vidit Nanda Fix $\epsilon$. Since $\phi$ is $\mathscr{C}^1$ it is Lipschitz on compact sets. Consider the compact set $K^\epsilon$ which equals the union of closed $\epsilon$-balls around points in $K$. This quickly gives you an upper bound on $N(\epsilon,\phi(K))$ in terms of the Lipschitz constant. In order to get an analogous lower bound, you would probably require bi-Lipschitzness of $\phi$.
Jan 16, 2014 at 22:12 answer added Ken Richardson timeline score: 2
Jan 16, 2014 at 18:29 history asked Ayman Moussa CC BY-SA 3.0