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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:57 history edited CommunityBot
replaced http://mathoverflow.net/ with https://mathoverflow.net/
Jan 10, 2014 at 12:07 comment added Nick Gill ... at which point the direction that @Russ suggests might work - you'd need to prove the statement for nilpotent groups. Having typed all that, I start to doubt that the reduction is really possible...
Jan 10, 2014 at 12:05 comment added Nick Gill Were such a reduction possible, then one might be able to proceed by proving the statement for quasisimple groups (generalizing @Alireza's comment below), then proving it for central products of isomorphic quasisimples, and then the result would be true for groups with non-nilpotent generalized Fitting subgroup of $G$. In other words you'd be left with the situation $F^*(G)=F(G)$...
Jan 10, 2014 at 12:03 comment added Nick Gill Is it conceivable that the following reduction might hold: Let $N$ be a normal subgroup of a group $G$. If $N$ contains an element $g$ of prime power order that is contained in at most half the subgroups of $N$, then $g$ is contained in at most half the subgroups of $G$?
Jan 9, 2014 at 20:39 answer added Russ Woodroofe timeline score: 14
Jan 9, 2014 at 18:41 answer added Alireza Abdollahi timeline score: 10
Jan 9, 2014 at 17:51 history edited Lee Mosher
edited tags
Jan 9, 2014 at 16:13 history edited Gjergji Zaimi CC BY-SA 3.0
added 54 characters in body
Jan 9, 2014 at 7:19 comment added Gjergji Zaimi @Noah, not that I know of.
Jan 9, 2014 at 4:12 comment added Noah Schweber Is there any group $H_0$ such that the answer in the case $H=H_0$ is known?
Jan 9, 2014 at 3:49 history asked Gjergji Zaimi CC BY-SA 3.0