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Jan 9, 2014 at 7:36 vote accept IMeasy
Jan 8, 2014 at 1:27 answer added Jason Starr timeline score: 2
Jan 7, 2014 at 20:45 comment added Jason Starr This is bad form -- I should really double-check this first. However, my vague recollection is that inside $\overline{\mathcal{M}}_{g,0}$, the following divisor class, $$ D = \sum_{h=1}^{[g/2]} h(g-h) \Delta_h,$$ is zero on the $F$-curves of the form $\overline{\mathcal{M}}_{0,4}$. Clearly it is not zero on some of the $F$-curves of the form $\overline{\mathcal{M}}_{1,1}$. I will try to double-check this. If it is correct, then I will post it as an answer.
Jan 7, 2014 at 18:25 history asked IMeasy CC BY-SA 3.0