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Dec 23, 2022 at 15:04 history edited Martin Sleziak CC BY-SA 4.0
http -> https (the question was bumped anyway)
Feb 10, 2021 at 6:00 answer added Tom Copeland timeline score: 8
Dec 24, 2018 at 13:39 comment added Tom Copeland In terms of Cauchy-like contour integrals, see math.stackexchange.com/questions/125343/… and math.stackexchange.com/questions/1537/…
Feb 27, 2016 at 21:05 comment added Tom Copeland See archive.org/stream/theoryoflinearop033341mbp#page/n39/mode/2up
Feb 12, 2015 at 0:43 comment added Tom Copeland You can relate locality vs. non-locality to simple poles vs. branch cuts in the appropriate complex-contour/convolution integral reps for fractional differintegro ops of this type. The regular derivatives can also be evaluated with a nonlocal Cauchy contour integral, as well, with no singularity in the gamma fct.
Mar 16, 2014 at 4:22 comment added Tom Copeland The Fourier trf. really has very little to do with this operator, hand waving to the contrary. Similarly, $D^{-1}_{FT}g(x)=\int_{-\infty }^{x}g(u)du$, for Fourier integral ops from the Fourier convolution thm, convolving the Heaviside step fct $H(x)$ with $g(x)$, whereas $D^{-1}_{LPT}g(x)=H(x)\int_{0 }^{x}g(u)du$, for Laplace trf ops from the LPT conv. thm. Note that $FT(H(x))= 1/(i 2 \pi f) + \delta(f)/2$, whereas $LPT(H(x))= 1/p$
Jan 6, 2014 at 1:20 history edited Joseph O'Rourke CC BY-SA 3.0
Include fig found by AlexR.
Jan 5, 2014 at 2:45 vote accept Joseph O'Rourke
Jan 4, 2014 at 23:56 comment added Alex R. For what it's worth there is a nice geometric interpretation of a fractional integral in this book, page 52, figure 5.1.
Jan 4, 2014 at 16:54 comment added Terry Tao A correction to my previous comment: the first order operator $d/dx$ is indefinite on the real line (the spectral variable $\xi$ can be either positive real or negative real), and so it is not natural to consider fractional powers of this operator (one has to arbitrarily choose a branch cut for $\xi^\alpha$). But if one is working on the half-line instead, then the spectral variable $\xi$ now naturally lives on the upper half-plane (Fourier-Laplace transform) and one now has a canonical interpretation of $\xi^\alpha$. So fractional powers of $d/dx$ are reasonable in half-line settings.
Jan 4, 2014 at 12:35 comment added Joseph O'Rourke @RicardoAndrade: Thanks; followed your tagging suggestions.
Jan 4, 2014 at 12:34 history edited Joseph O'Rourke
edited tags
Jan 4, 2014 at 6:00 comment added Qiaochu Yuan One obstruction to an obvious geometric interpretation is that the ordinary derivative can be regarded as generalizing to, for example, the exterior derivative, but I'm not aware of a generalization of the half-derivative this broad without extra structure (fractional powers of the Laplacian require a Riemannian metric, for example).
Jan 4, 2014 at 5:25 comment added Ricardo Andrade Would it perhaps be appropriate to replace the deprecated tag 'geometry' with the tag 'geometric-intuition'? Also, would the top-level tag 'ca.analysis-and-odes' be adequate?
Jan 4, 2014 at 4:07 answer added Andrey Rekalo timeline score: 52
Jan 4, 2014 at 2:49 comment added Terry Tao Also, fractional derivatives depend continuously on the exponent $\alpha$ (at least in the distributional topology), as can be seen on the Fourier side. The non-locality disappears as $\alpha$ approaches a natural number due to denominators such as $\Gamma(-\alpha)$ that appear in the formulae for the kernel away from the origin (which is something like $\frac{1}{\Gamma(-\alpha)} |x-y|^{-1-\alpha}$ in one dimension).
Jan 4, 2014 at 2:46 comment added Terry Tao I haven't found fractional powers of the first derivative $d/dx$, which is indefinite, to be of much use. Fractional powers $\Delta^\alpha$ of the (analyst's) Laplacian $\Delta = -\sum_{i=1}^n \frac{\partial}{\partial x_i^2}$, on the other hand, are much more useful (note that the Laplacian is positive definite, in contrast to the first order operator.) The square root of the Laplacian has a natural geometric interpretation as the Dirichlet-to-Neumann operator for the upper half-plane.
Jan 4, 2014 at 2:44 comment added Ryan Reich I can't answer your question, but it reminds me of this one, in whose answer locality of the derivative is obtained from the Leibniz rule.
Jan 4, 2014 at 2:43 comment added Tomas Well, my view of fractional derivatives is from it's kernel (by using Fourier transform), though this has nothing to do with geometric interpretation. For integral derivatives,like $\frac{d^k}{dx^k}$, the Schwartz kernel is $\delta_0^{(k)}$, which measures only on a point, however, when considering the fractional derivative,like $\frac{d^\frac{1}{2}}{dx^\frac{1}{2}}$ on $\mathbb{R}$, the respective kernel is $|x-y|^{-1-\frac{1}{2}}$, which is nonlocal anymore.
Jan 4, 2014 at 2:32 history edited Joseph O'Rourke CC BY-SA 3.0
Typo.
Jan 4, 2014 at 2:27 history asked Joseph O'Rourke CC BY-SA 3.0