Skip to main content
8 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Dec 13, 2019 at 9:53 comment added Seva Rather off-topic, but I wonder whether it is possible to prove Liouville's theorem considering a function like $F(x,y)=\sum_{i,j} f(i,j) x^iy^j$. (As written, this does not make much sence, of course, since the series diverges.) We then have $$ 4F(x,y) = \sum_{i,j} \left(xf(i-1,j)x^{i-1}j+\dotsb+\frac1yf(i,j+1)x^iy^{j+1} \right) $$ whence $4F(x,y)=(x+1/x+y+1/y)F(x,y)$, implying $F(x,y)=0$.
Jan 9, 2019 at 16:32 history edited Carlo Beenakker CC BY-SA 4.0
Http to https
Jan 3, 2014 at 0:09 history bounty ended Alexey Ustinov
Jan 3, 2014 at 0:05 vote accept Alexey Ustinov
Dec 31, 2013 at 12:52 comment added Alexey Ustinov If I understood correctly, one of Capoulade's proofs is based on a result by La Roux, who gave explicit formula for the solution of Dirichlet problem in rectangle. The last article is available in Gallica, see portail.mathdoc.fr/JMPA/…
Dec 31, 2013 at 12:34 comment added Alexey Ustinov Dear Carlo, thank you very much for the article. It is at least a half of an answer. Probably Capoulade was the first who had proved this theorem.
Dec 31, 2013 at 12:25 history edited Carlo Beenakker CC BY-SA 3.0
added 111 characters in body
Dec 31, 2013 at 12:16 history answered Carlo Beenakker CC BY-SA 3.0