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Mar 22, 2014 at 14:40 answer added NJK timeline score: 1
Feb 19, 2014 at 8:28 comment added username Did you look at Evans' PDE textbook ? The derivation of $H^2$ estimates is done in details. Using $\sqrt{w}\xi$ instead of $\xi$ in the proof could (maybe) give you an idea.
Feb 18, 2014 at 10:17 answer added Juhana Siljander timeline score: 3
Feb 17, 2014 at 3:19 comment added Tomas @Juhana, thanks for your comments. I will be very glad to see some references about it.
Feb 16, 2014 at 20:42 comment added Juhana Siljander I think most of the interior regularity theory should work if you are working with a doubling measure $d\mu$ which supports a Poincaré inequality instead of the standard Lebesgue measure. So, while I haven't checked the details, I think you should be able to more or less repeat the standard arguments by just considering the measure $d\mu:=w(x) dx$ instead of $dx$. Of course, if you like to work in whole of $\mathbb{R}^n$, then there might be problems at the infinity. If you are interested in this approach, I may try to find some references.
Jan 2, 2014 at 7:33 comment added Craig @shanlin. Take $ w=1$ for now and try the above approach. But after integrating the equation put the derivative on $V(x)$ back onto the other terms by integrating by parts. This appears to work at least formally.
Jan 2, 2014 at 1:10 history edited Tomas CC BY-SA 3.0
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Dec 31, 2013 at 19:54 comment added Tomas @Craig, thanks for your comments, the assumption on $V$ is just bounded in the paper, so I think perhaps there is a more general way to do this
Dec 31, 2013 at 12:14 comment added Craig To attempt a proof (lets assume $V=1$) multiply the equation by $ w u \phi^2$ where $ \phi$ a cut off function and integrate and apply Young's inequality. This should get the weighted $L^2$ norm of gradient controlled by weighted $L^2$ norm. To do the next step take a derivative of equation and try same procedure. At first glance it appears this method may not work unless $V(x)$ is assumed nice...
Dec 31, 2013 at 3:07 history edited Tomas CC BY-SA 3.0
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Dec 29, 2013 at 12:55 comment added Michael Renardy I think the issue is about behavior at infinity rather than the boundary.
Dec 29, 2013 at 5:52 comment added Craig Is the result even true? Take $ w(x)=1$. I think its false since you can't expect to have the regularity right to the boundary.. ???
Dec 29, 2013 at 1:54 history asked Tomas CC BY-SA 3.0