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Jun 20, 2022 at 11:01 comment added Bennett McElwee I think mathematician N cannot determine N since they don't know whether v[N]=M[N]. Therefore what we can actually say is "Mathematician i with i<N can determine N, however each mathematician with i≥N only knows that N≤i." The rest of the proof works anyway but it took me a while to see why; I have set out my reasoning in a new answer.
Jan 1, 2014 at 23:51 comment added user44653 Thanks, that's an elegant argument; the result is surprising too.
Dec 28, 2013 at 23:32 vote accept user44653
Dec 27, 2013 at 6:07 history edited Eric Naslund CC BY-SA 3.0
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Dec 27, 2013 at 5:21 history edited Eric Naslund CC BY-SA 3.0
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Dec 27, 2013 at 4:26 history edited Eric Naslund CC BY-SA 3.0
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Dec 27, 2013 at 4:21 history edited Eric Naslund CC BY-SA 3.0
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Dec 27, 2013 at 4:10 history answered Eric Naslund CC BY-SA 3.0