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Jun 22, 2022 at 8:13 history edited CommunityBot
replaced http://math.uga.edu/~pete with http://alpha.math.uga.edu/~pete
Jul 8, 2020 at 9:00 comment added R.P. @WillSawin Well at least I sensed that something was off about the proof. Thank you Will, I appreciate this.
Jul 7, 2020 at 22:09 comment added Will Sawin Since this question was just bumped, I want to point out that your too easy proof was in fact not easy enough. Say $t = a_m T^m+$ higher order terms. Then $\mathbb F_3((T))$ has dimension (at most) $m$ over $\mathbb F_3((t))$, and in fact $1, T, \dots, T^{m-1}$ form a basis, since using them and a suitable power of $t$ we can cancel the leading term of any power series, and then the next one, and the next one, and so on.
Dec 17, 2013 at 22:17 comment added Michael Zieve By the way, part (1) of my answer shows that the hypotheses of the first part of your answer actually imply that $\sigma$ has order dividing $2$.
Dec 17, 2013 at 22:13 comment added Michael Zieve Nice proof! So the conclusion is that $\sigma$ has a fixed point if and only if it has finite order. As I mentioned, the finite-order elements with $\sigma'(T)=1$ have been studied quite a bit; and of course, a finite-order element with $\sigma'(T)=-1$ satisfies $(\sigma^2)'(T)=1$.
Dec 16, 2013 at 18:15 comment added user44230 Rene, I am satisfied and thank for Michael and Rene. Pierre
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Dec 16, 2013 at 0:41 comment added Julian Rosen Jonathan Lubin's "Torsion in the Nottingham group" discusses the structure of finite order $\sigma$.
Dec 16, 2013 at 0:30 history answered R.P. CC BY-SA 3.0