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Nov 22, 2013 at 3:02 comment added Will Sawin @QiaochuYuan: Take the ideal $I$ of algebraic integers $a\ in \mathbb Q(z)$ such that $az$ is an integer. $I$ is a proper nontrivial ideal, so it has some proper nontrivial prime factor. This defines a valuation. The valuation of $z$ by that valuation cannot be nonnegative, or else $z$ could be written as $b/a$ for $b$ an algebraic integer and $a$ a unit mod the prime ideal, which is a contradiction because $a$ is not in $I$.
Nov 22, 2013 at 1:55 vote accept Terry Tao
Nov 22, 2013 at 1:20 comment added Qiaochu Yuan The point should be that integrality is a local condition ($z$ is an algebraic integer iff $\nu(z) \ge 0$ for every valuation $\nu$ on $\mathbb{Q}(z)$) and I feel like there should be a clean proof of this but I don't know it.
Nov 22, 2013 at 1:10 answer added Julian Rosen timeline score: 24
Nov 22, 2013 at 0:54 history asked Terry Tao CC BY-SA 3.0