Skip to main content
8 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Jun 12, 2015 at 15:11 vote accept M.González
Dec 10, 2013 at 19:02 answer added Bill Johnson timeline score: 16
Nov 16, 2013 at 11:44 comment added M.González @Bill Johnson: Thank you very much for your useful comments.
Nov 15, 2013 at 19:35 comment added Bill Johnson Continuing the 2nd comment, it is then enough to assume that $M$ embeds into a separable conjugate space, for again by subspace homogeneity you can assume WLOG that $M$ is contained in a weak$^*$ closed separable subspace of $\ell_\infty$ and use the fact that if both $Y$ and $X/Y$ embed into $\ell_\infty$, then so does $X$.
Nov 15, 2013 at 19:18 comment added Bill Johnson A second comment is that if $M$ is isomorphic to a separable conjugate space, then $\ell_\infty/M$ does embed into $\ell_\infty$. The reason is that then $M$ is isomorphic to a weak$^*$ closed subspace of $\ell_\infty$, so by the subspace homogeneity of $\ell_\infty$ you can assume that $M$ is weak$^*$ closed.
Nov 15, 2013 at 16:16 comment added Bill Johnson Nice question. The only immediate comment I have is that $\ell_\infty/M$ does not embed into $\ell_\infty$ if $M$ is separable and $c_0$ embeds into $M$. WLOG [Lindenstrauss-Rosenthal] by the subspace homogeneity property of $\ell_\infty$ you can assume $c_0 \subset M$, and $c_0(R)$ embeds into $\ell_\infty/c_0$, and every operator from $c_0(R)$ into $\ell_\infty$ has separable range because weakly compact subsets of $\ell_\infty$ are separable since $\ell_\infty$ is the dual of a separable space.
Nov 15, 2013 at 9:23 history edited M.González CC BY-SA 3.0
missing symbol
Nov 15, 2013 at 7:50 history asked M.González CC BY-SA 3.0