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Nov 14, 2013 at 17:05 vote accept Vedran Šego
Nov 12, 2013 at 19:06 comment added Lev Borisov Well, my answer gives no help if all $A_i$ are uppertriangular with zeroes on the diagonal :)
Nov 11, 2013 at 14:38 comment added Vedran Šego You make plenty of sense, and this answer seems to be quite complete. It doesn't cover the case when all $A_i$ are singular, but given that any set of singular matrices is "thin", I don't see it as a problem. I will give it another day (or few) before accepting it, to see if any more answers pop up, possibly with some additional insights. Thank you for your help!
Nov 10, 2013 at 22:19 comment added Lev Borisov If $B_j$ is invertible, then $B_kB_j=B_jB_k$ implies $B_j^{-1}B_k=B_kB_j^{-1}$. Then you have $B_iB_j^{-1}B_kB_j^{-1} = B_iB_k B_j^{-2}$. So if $B_iB_k=B_kB_i$, you have the same thing for $B_iB_j^{-1}$. Does this make sense?
Nov 10, 2013 at 16:39 comment added Vedran Šego Thank you, this is an interesting idea. I'm having trouble seeing why the commutativity of $\{B_i\}$ implies commutativity of $\{B_iB_j^{-1}\}$. If all $B_i$ are nonsingular, it is trivial, but how do you show that if some of them are singular?
Nov 10, 2013 at 13:12 history answered Lev Borisov CC BY-SA 3.0