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Nov 8, 2013 at 15:38 vote accept ChrisLazda
Nov 8, 2013 at 15:38 answer added ChrisLazda timeline score: 2
Nov 7, 2013 at 8:34 history edited ChrisLazda CC BY-SA 3.0
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Nov 7, 2013 at 8:30 comment added ChrisLazda No, I don't think so. By cohomology, I really mean $Hom_{D}(1,V[i])$, where $D$ is either of the triangulated categories, so $t$-structures don't come into it at all. I'll edit the question to make this clearer.
Nov 7, 2013 at 0:03 comment added John Salvatierrez general triangulated category comment: could it be that you're taking cohomology with respect to two different t-structures? (so that the equivalence holds, but without taking one standard heart in the other)
Nov 6, 2013 at 21:33 history edited ChrisLazda CC BY-SA 3.0
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Nov 6, 2013 at 18:27 comment added Qiaochu Yuan Oh, I see. My apologies. It seems the schematic homotopy type is not the profinite homotopy type (I thought they were two names for the same thing).
Nov 6, 2013 at 17:22 comment added ChrisLazda Sorry, which particular section of the thesis did you have in mind? It seems to be talking about pro-finite homotopy types to me...
Nov 5, 2013 at 21:16 history edited Allen Knutson CC BY-SA 3.0
fixed spelling error in title
Nov 5, 2013 at 20:09 history asked ChrisLazda CC BY-SA 3.0