A, B$A, B$ are two symmetric matrices, if A-B$ A-B $ is semidefinite (i.e. A - B \geq 0$ A - B \geq 0$), if we rearrange the eigenvalues of two matrices, \lambda_1 (A) \geq \lambda_2 (A) \geq ... \geq \lambda_n (A)$\lambda_1 (A) \geq \lambda_2 (A) \geq ... \geq \lambda_n (A)$, and the same for B$ B $, can we say \lambda_i (A) \geq \lambda_i (B)$ \lambda_i (A) \geq \lambda_i (B) $ for each i$i$ ?
Post Closed as "Not suitable for this site" by Suvrit, Sergei Ivanov, Andrey Rekalo, Chris Godsil, Ian Agol