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Feb 14, 2023 at 23:02 answer added Giacomo Petrillo timeline score: 1
Nov 26, 2021 at 19:01 comment added adam W @trenta3 one post of mine that talks about psuedo inverse and span: math.stackexchange.com/a/317053/43193, just look for the section proof
Nov 26, 2021 at 7:52 comment added trenta3 @adamW Thank you very much! I'll have a look at your posts then
Nov 24, 2021 at 16:30 comment added adam W @trenta3 I remember I might have some perinent posts on my math.stackexchange. I haven't posted too terribly much so it may be of use to you to look. Otherwise, if I think of what I was talking about here, I may be able to explain better later. no source-- I think I was doing it on my own really
Nov 24, 2021 at 10:35 comment added trenta3 @adamW Can you provide a reference or a line of reasonment for the fact that the Sherman-Morrison formula applies to the pseudoinverse in case of both $A$ and the update being symmetric? I'm in the need of such a formula, but I have not found some clear reference to such a statement yet.
Jan 12, 2021 at 13:48 history edited YCor CC BY-SA 4.0
removed capitals from title (the question was bumped anyway)
Feb 28, 2014 at 12:47 history edited j.c.
edited tags
Feb 27, 2014 at 23:32 answer added pdmclean timeline score: 2
Feb 27, 2014 at 23:11 answer added Felix Goldberg timeline score: 16
Nov 15, 2013 at 10:17 answer added Rajesh timeline score: 4
Nov 4, 2013 at 6:38 comment added adam W If $\mathbf A$ is symmetric and so is the update to it, then I get that the Sherman-Morrison formula works as is (replacing inverse with pseudo-inverse of course). Otherwise, if I am correct, the formula gives you only a general inverse, and correction using the null space is required to make it the desired pseudo-inverse.
Nov 3, 2013 at 18:38 comment added Suvrit Have a look at Mikael's answer at: mathoverflow.net/questions/72059/…
Nov 3, 2013 at 18:37 history asked Federico Magallanez CC BY-SA 3.0