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Jun 11, 2010 at 18:12 vote accept Jean Delinez
May 30, 2010 at 23:33 comment added BCnrd Apart from the topological motivation that for Hausdorff topological gp $G$ and subgp $H$ the quotient $G/H$ is Hausdorff precisely when $H$ is closed in $G$, perhaps (i) may sound better in view of the following fact: if $f:H \rightarrow G$ is a homomorphism between finite type group schemes over a field $k$ and $\ker f = 1$ in the scheme-theoretic sense (i.e., $f$ is injective on $R$-valued points for all $k$-algebras $R$, or $f$ is a functorial monomorphism) then $f$ is necessarily a closed immersion. Thus, (ii) is essentially meaningless in any reasonable algebro-geometric sense.
May 30, 2010 at 18:05 answer added S. Carnahan timeline score: 2
May 30, 2010 at 13:33 answer added Jim Humphreys timeline score: 3
Feb 8, 2010 at 16:42 answer added Victor Ostrik timeline score: 8
Feb 8, 2010 at 16:28 answer added Mike Skirvin timeline score: 5
Feb 8, 2010 at 8:23 history asked Jean Delinez CC BY-SA 2.5