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S Oct 27, 2013 at 22:14 history suggested Daniel Roy CC BY-SA 3.0
Added that "g" has to be measurable, which we never said, but we wanted. If g need not be measurable then the conditions on the space X become much weaker, on the other hand. Also, swapped order of the last two paragraphs and added necessary condition of completeness to the Kuratowski comment.
Oct 27, 2013 at 22:09 review Suggested edits
S Oct 27, 2013 at 22:14
Oct 27, 2013 at 21:40 vote accept Nate Ackerman
Oct 27, 2013 at 17:05 answer added François G. Dorais timeline score: 10
Oct 27, 2013 at 15:12 answer added Jason Rute timeline score: 4
Oct 27, 2013 at 12:54 answer added Gerald Edgar timeline score: 2
Oct 27, 2013 at 12:48 answer added Gerald Edgar timeline score: 7
S Oct 27, 2013 at 8:33 history suggested Daniel Roy CC BY-SA 3.0
added polish suggestion by Jason Rute
Oct 27, 2013 at 8:24 review Suggested edits
S Oct 27, 2013 at 8:33
S Oct 27, 2013 at 2:01 history suggested Jason Rute
Added a descriptive set theory tag, since I think this the sort of question descriptive set theorists think about.
Oct 27, 2013 at 1:45 review Suggested edits
S Oct 27, 2013 at 2:01
Oct 27, 2013 at 1:44 comment added Jason Rute I see my solution/comment above was wrong even if $Y=[0,1]$ (even when the lim sup is not $\infty$). I still think the answer to your question is yes (when $X$ and $Y$ are Polish), but whatever the proof is, it is going to be technical I think. You should add that $X$ and $Y$ are Polish spaces (I assume this is what you meant---since you cited Kechris). I'll add a "descriptive set theory" tag---since in my mind descriptive set theory is anything technical involving Polish spaces. :)
Oct 26, 2013 at 21:55 comment added Nate Ackerman Thanks. However we are not assuming that Y is the real numbers and so there is not necessarily a natural ordering. Also, even when Y is the real numbers I believe that for many points not in the measure one set the limit will not exists (i.e. will be $\infty$)
Oct 26, 2013 at 20:40 history edited Ricardo Andrade
replaced deprecated tag 'topology'
Oct 26, 2013 at 19:28 comment added Jason Rute I think the answer is yes. For each point not in the measure one set, let its value be the lim sup of all the values in a ball around it (restricted to the measure one set) as the radius goes to zero. Then by the definition of continuity this should work. I'll try to think about the details and write an answer later if no one else does.
S Oct 26, 2013 at 18:55 history suggested Daniel Roy CC BY-SA 3.0
Put a brief version of the question at the start so that people browsing in Questions can see it without clicking through.
Oct 26, 2013 at 18:32 review Suggested edits
S Oct 26, 2013 at 18:55
Oct 26, 2013 at 17:25 history edited Nate Ackerman
edited tags
Oct 26, 2013 at 17:17 history asked Nate Ackerman CC BY-SA 3.0