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Timeline for Cohomology of tangent bundles

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Jan 8, 2018 at 6:05 comment added Sasha @TaisongJing: Of course. Sorry for this typo.
Jan 7, 2018 at 2:26 comment added Taisong Jing I suppose you meant $\mathcal{E}xt^1(i_*F, O_M) = i_*F^\vee(E)$ @Sasha
Oct 25, 2013 at 19:43 vote accept Puzzled
Oct 25, 2013 at 19:28 comment added Sasha This is what derived functors do. One can check that for a divisorial embedding $i:E \to M$ and a locally free sheaf $F$ on $E$ one has $\mathcal{H}om(i_*F,O_M) = 0$, $\mathcal{E}xt^1(i_*F,O_M) = i_*F(E)$. This is an instance of the Grothendieck duality.
Oct 25, 2013 at 18:55 comment added Puzzled I am sorry but I did not understand how I get the second exact sequence from the first. It seems to me that dualizing the first exact sequence you wrote one has $$0\mapsto T_{E/Z}\rightarrow T_{\widetilde{X}}\rightarrow \pi^{*}T_{X}\mapsto 0$$ instead of $(\ast)$.
Oct 25, 2013 at 17:47 comment added Puzzled Yes, I know. For that equality one needs to have $H^{i}(j_{*}N) = 0$.
Oct 25, 2013 at 17:39 comment added Sasha I never wrote that $H^i(\pi_*T_{\tilde X}) = H^i(T_X)$.
Oct 25, 2013 at 17:25 comment added Puzzled Thank you. The isomorphism $H^{i}(T_{\widetilde{X}})=H^{i}(\pi_{*}T_{\widetilde{X}})$ can be also seen as a consequence of the fact that $R^{i}\pi_{*}T_{\widetilde{X}} = 0$. From the last exact sequence you wrote to prove that $H^{i}(\pi_{*}T_{\widetilde{X}}) = H^{i}(T_{X})$ we need to have $H^{i}(j_{*}N) = 0$.
Oct 25, 2013 at 6:25 history answered Sasha CC BY-SA 3.0