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Oct 24, 2013 at 17:03 history closed Dan Petersen
Benjamin Steinberg
Andreas Blass
Ramiro de la Vega
Carlo Beenakker
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Oct 24, 2013 at 14:36 vote accept Cusp
Oct 24, 2013 at 14:32 comment added Benjamin Steinberg This should be asked at mse.
Oct 24, 2013 at 14:13 review Close votes
Oct 24, 2013 at 17:03
Oct 24, 2013 at 13:59 comment added Johannes Hahn There are a lot of "suppose" here... The reverse of an order is always an order, so you don't have to suppose that $\overline{P}$ is a poset, that's always true. Along the same lines: The chains of $P$ are the same as the chains in $\overline{P}$ so again the assumption that $\overline{P}$ has finite chains is not really an assumption, it's always true. And then we arrive at what @BorisNovikov said: Since the chains are the same, the complexes are the same (as simplicial complexes not just homemorphic). What was the question again?
Oct 24, 2013 at 13:28 answer added Boris Novikov timeline score: 1
Oct 24, 2013 at 11:13 history asked Cusp CC BY-SA 3.0