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Oct 22, 2013 at 9:22 vote accept Richard Garner
Oct 22, 2013 at 9:01 comment added David Roberts Hi Richard, congrats on your first MO contribution! :-)
Oct 22, 2013 at 7:31 answer added Marguax timeline score: 10
Oct 22, 2013 at 7:12 answer added Qiaochu Yuan timeline score: 17
Oct 22, 2013 at 3:05 history edited Richard Garner CC BY-SA 3.0
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Oct 22, 2013 at 3:04 comment added Richard Garner Thanks, Peter. You're right that (1) and (2) are not in correspondence in quite the form I stated. Have edited. As to your other comment, that is illuminating; really what is happening is that the equivalence between the categories of Lie algebras and formal group laws is only canonically defined in the direction from the latter to the former; the converse requires the axiom of choice (a choice of basis for each Lie algebra).
Oct 22, 2013 at 2:59 comment added Drew Heard Maybe the answer is to look at formal groups (as opposed to formal group laws)?
Oct 22, 2013 at 2:48 comment added Peter Crooks Also, I do not think passage from the first to the second is a correspondence. In general, there are many non-isomorphic Lie groups with a given (isomorphism class of) Lie algebra. If you require your Lie groups to be connected and simply-connected, then taking Lie algebras gives a correspondence.
Oct 22, 2013 at 1:58 comment added Peter Crooks It would seem that passage from the second to the third involves a choice of basis for your Lie algebra. Since the exponential map is a local diffeomorphism, this choice of basis is essentially a choice of local coordinates at the identity of the group (and hence elsewhere). So, it looks like a choice of coordinates arises in other places.
Oct 22, 2013 at 0:06 review First posts
Oct 22, 2013 at 0:20
Oct 21, 2013 at 23:54 history edited Richard Garner CC BY-SA 3.0
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Oct 21, 2013 at 23:46 history asked Richard Garner CC BY-SA 3.0