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Oct 24, 2013 at 20:03 vote accept Marco Cantarini
Oct 24, 2013 at 16:44 comment added Marco Cantarini @GregMartin and thank you for your clarifications!
Oct 24, 2013 at 16:43 comment added Marco Cantarini @GHfromMO Thank you for your answers!
Oct 22, 2013 at 17:04 comment added GH from MO @The_Cam: Greg Martin is right. If we knew the bound $\pi(x;q,a) \gg \frac1{\phi(q)}\frac x{\log x}$, then for any $\epsilon>0$ we would know that $\pi(x;q,a)>0$ for some $x\ll_\epsilon q^{1+\epsilon}$. However, this consequence is only known for $x\ll q^{5.2}$ at the moment, see en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Linnik%27s_theorem
Oct 22, 2013 at 9:58 comment added Greg Martin For fixed $q$, yes, this follows from the asymptotic formula. But if $q$ can grow with $x$, then we don't know this lower bound in all ranges.
Oct 21, 2013 at 23:01 comment added Marco Cantarini @GregMartin see this link academic.csuohio.edu/soprunov_i/pdf/primes.pdf
Oct 21, 2013 at 19:55 comment added Greg Martin It is not true that we know the lower bound $\pi(x;q,a) \gg \frac1{\phi(q)}\frac x{\log x}$ for all ranges of $q$ and $x$. (By the way, the notation $\pi(x;q,a)$ is more standard than $\pi(x,a,q)$.)
Oct 21, 2013 at 14:39 answer added GH from MO timeline score: 11
Oct 21, 2013 at 13:39 comment added Dimitris Koukoulopoulos Look up "Brun-Tithcmarsch inequality".
Oct 21, 2013 at 12:45 answer added H.Flip timeline score: 4
Oct 21, 2013 at 12:23 comment added Alvin It is a consequence of Dirichlet's theorem on arithmetic progressions.
S Oct 21, 2013 at 11:42 history suggested Konstantinos Gaitanas CC BY-SA 3.0
Some corrections are needed
Oct 21, 2013 at 11:26 review Suggested edits
S Oct 21, 2013 at 11:42
Oct 21, 2013 at 11:12 review First posts
Oct 21, 2013 at 11:13
Oct 21, 2013 at 10:55 history asked Marco Cantarini CC BY-SA 3.0