If I understand the question correctly, you have a map of schemes $G \times X \to X$, and the corresponding map of $k$-points is a group action (meaning that the obvious two maps $G(k) \times G(k) \times X(k) \to X(k)$ coincide), but you are not sure that it is a group action in the category of schemes. In other words, you fear that you may have two maps $G \times G \times X \to X$ which coincide on $k$ points but not as maps of schemes.
This certainly can't happen if $G$ and $X$ are reduced. So, if you are talking about varieties, there is no issue. It's not obvious to me what happens when $G$ is reduced (which is automatic in characteristic zero) but $X$ isn't.
Based on comments below, and on reading the motivating question, I didn't understand right. The question is, given an action $G(k) \times X(k) \to X(k)$, so that $g \times X(k) \to X(k)$ is algebraic for every $k \in G(k)$, can we conclude that it comes from an algebraic map $G \times X \to X$. But I don't think there is any good way to force this. For example, suppose that $k$ has a nontrivial automorphism $\sigma$ and $G$ is defined over the fixed field of $\sigma$. (Think of complex conjugation.) Then $\sigma$ induces an automorphism of $G(k)$ as an abstract group. Take any algebraic action $G \times X \to X$ and compose with the automorphism of $k$ to get a very nonalgebraic action of $G(k)$ on $X(k)$.