Skip to main content

Timeline for Equivariant normalization?

Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0

6 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Oct 15, 2013 at 16:14 vote accept Jesko Hüttenhain
Oct 18, 2013 at 9:34
Oct 15, 2013 at 15:50 comment added Jason Starr The counterexamples are over a positive characteristic field $k$ (say, algebraically closed), where the group scheme $G$ is not uniquely determined by the group $G(k)$. This should never be an issue in characteristic $0$.
Oct 15, 2013 at 14:07 comment added Jesko Hüttenhain No you're right, I don't see why we would need $G$ to be reductive, or equal to $\mathrm{Gl}_n$. Defining $g.(a/b):=g.a/g.b$ is certainly a valid group action on the fraction field. If $a/b$ is integral over the coordinate ring, applying a group element $g$ to some integral relation it satisfied should yield an integral relation for the translate, because the coefficients remain in $\mathbb C[X]$. However, I might be missing something and my question was directed more @JasonStarr.
Oct 15, 2013 at 14:02 comment added Peter Crooks You are correct that I imposed no conditions on $G$ other than that it be affine algebraic. Technically, we want an algebraic action $G\times\tilde{X}\rightarrow\tilde{X}$. Such a thing presumably comes from a $\mathbb{C}$-algebra morphism $\mathbb{C}[\tilde{X}]\rightarrow\mathbb{C}[\tilde{X}]\otimes\mathbb{C}[G]$ satisfying the properties of a right-action. I think this should just be what I constructed, but I could be wrong.
Oct 15, 2013 at 12:39 comment added Jesko Hüttenhain That sounds nice, however I am worried about @JasonStarr's comment (see above) - where in your argument will one use the fact that $G=\mathrm{Gl}_n\mathbb C$ (or that $G$ is reductive, which I suppose will be the most relevant property)?
Oct 15, 2013 at 11:58 history answered Peter Crooks CC BY-SA 3.0