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Jun 15, 2020 at 7:27 history edited CommunityBot
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Oct 5, 2013 at 23:09 vote accept passerby51
Oct 5, 2013 at 17:29 answer added Chris Godsil timeline score: 7
Oct 5, 2013 at 15:06 comment added passerby51 let us continue this discussion in chat
Oct 5, 2013 at 15:05 comment added joro I am not sure, I put the degree sequence on the diagonal, should I put the degree of the vertices on the diagonal?
Oct 5, 2013 at 15:03 comment added passerby51 @joro, Are you sure? The computer says that the smallest eigenvalue is $-0.7953$ for you third example.
Oct 5, 2013 at 14:56 comment added passerby51 @joro, you second example also is disconnected and has a bipartite component $\{2,3,5\}$.
Oct 5, 2013 at 14:55 comment added joro This one is connected and not bipartite: [(0, 3), (0, 5), (0, 6), (1, 4), (2, 4), (3, 5), (3, 6), (4, 5), (4, 6), (5, 6)]
Oct 5, 2013 at 14:54 history edited passerby51 CC BY-SA 3.0
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Oct 5, 2013 at 14:52 comment added passerby51 @joro, that is because the graph is disconnected, and it has a connected component which is bipartite (namely $(0,4)$). I should have mentioned that the graph is connected.
Oct 5, 2013 at 14:51 comment added joro Or maybe this one: [(0, 4), (1, 5), (1, 6), (2, 5), (2, 6), (3, 5), (3, 6), (5, 6)], [(0, 4), (0, 6), (1, 4), (1, 6), (2, 5), (3, 5), (4, 6)]
Oct 5, 2013 at 14:50 comment added passerby51 @suv....rit, I understand, no hard feeling :)
Oct 5, 2013 at 14:47 comment added Suvrit @passerby51: which is why i put it in "..." marks ;-) --- just to alert readers to the non-standard usage in your question, because the other definitions linked to are vastly more prevalent.
Oct 5, 2013 at 14:44 comment added joro According to my implementation the graph with edges [(0, 4), (1, 5), (1, 6), (2, 5), (2, 6), (3, 5), (3, 6), (5, 6)] has eigenvalue -1 and is not bipartite, not sure if this is correct. the min degree is 1.
Oct 5, 2013 at 14:41 comment added passerby51 @joro, in fact (for the $L$ defined above) they seem to have exactly one eigenvalue $1$ and one eigenvalue $-1$ with the rest of the eigenvalues being zero.
Oct 5, 2013 at 14:38 comment added passerby51 @joro, with my definition, both should have an eigenvalue $-1$.
Oct 5, 2013 at 14:37 comment added joro What are the eigenvalues of K_{2,2} and K_{3,3} with your definition to test my implementation?
Oct 5, 2013 at 14:36 review Close votes
Oct 5, 2013 at 17:30
Oct 5, 2013 at 14:32 history edited passerby51 CC BY-SA 3.0
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Oct 5, 2013 at 14:20 history edited passerby51 CC BY-SA 3.0
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Oct 5, 2013 at 14:19 comment added passerby51 @ suv....rit, A definition can't be wrong (it can be nonstandard). I am defining the Laplacian the way I mentioned above. You can rename it to whatever you like if you don't like the name. By the way, the eigenvalues of $I - D^{-1/2} A D^{-1/2}$ and $D^{-1/2} A D^{-1/2}$ are very closely related (by an affine transform $x \mapsto -x+1$). You can reformulate my question in terms of that matrix.
Oct 5, 2013 at 14:17 comment added passerby51 @joro, There are many definitions of the Laplacian. The one I have mentioned in my post is a bit non-standard. (It is related to the symmetric Laplacian sometimes defined as $I - D^{-1/2} A D^{-1/2}$.) For the Laplacian that I defined, I still think what I wrote is correct.
Oct 5, 2013 at 14:17 comment added Suvrit The definition you are using of the graph laplacian is different / "wrong" --- it is either $D-A$, or the normalized version $I-D^{-1/2}AD^{-1/2}$. The Graph Laplacian is a well-known semidefinite matrix, whose smallest eigenvalue is $0$---so it can never have $-1$ as an eigenvalue.
Oct 5, 2013 at 14:10 comment added joro According to sage $K_{2,2}$ has eigenvalues of the Laplacian: [4, 0, 2, 2] and $K_{3,3}$: [6, 0, 3, 3, 3, 3]
Oct 5, 2013 at 13:47 history asked passerby51 CC BY-SA 3.0