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Jan 11, 2014 at 12:13 comment added zibadawa timmy This doesn't seem right at all. $\phi(A)=A$ and $\ker(\phi)\leq A$ is impossible for $A$ finite. And there is no guarantee that the image of a higher power of $\phi$ and $K$ will generate $G$. And in your last sentence you can't fix $K$ and invert every element of it at the same time. Unless it has exponent 2, where those are the same.
Oct 30, 2013 at 18:22 vote accept Yassine Guerboussa
Oct 3, 2013 at 20:40 comment added Yassine Guerboussa Yes I see. I'm confused when you are saying $\phi$ fixes $A$, you just meant that $A$ is $\phi$-invariant. Note that this is included in our statement that $\phi$ acts trivially on $G/A$.
Oct 3, 2013 at 20:33 history edited Derek Holt CC BY-SA 3.0
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Oct 3, 2013 at 20:25 history edited Derek Holt CC BY-SA 3.0
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Oct 3, 2013 at 20:08 comment added Derek Holt Yes, so $x \in A$ and hence $K \le A$, which is what I wrote. Why should that imply $x=1$? I didn't say that $\phi$ acts trivially on $A$. I am proving the contrapositive of what you asked. I am assuming that there is an endomorphism of $G$ that acts trivially on $G/A$ that is not an automorphism (which is certainly possible in general!) and deducing that there must be an automorphism of $G$ that induces the identity on $G/A$ but not on $A$.
Oct 3, 2013 at 16:53 comment added Yassine Guerboussa You said $\phi$ is an endomorphism that acts trivially on $G/A$ and $A$ and has a non trivial kernel. This can not hold, as $\phi(x)=1$ implies $x^{-1} \phi(x) = x^{-1} \in A$, thus $x \in A$ and so $\phi(x)=x=1$.
Oct 3, 2013 at 15:53 history edited Derek Holt CC BY-SA 3.0
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Oct 3, 2013 at 15:48 history answered Derek Holt CC BY-SA 3.0