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Oct 30, 2013 at 18:22 vote accept Yassine Guerboussa
Oct 3, 2013 at 15:48 answer added Derek Holt timeline score: 2
Oct 3, 2013 at 14:53 history edited Yassine Guerboussa CC BY-SA 3.0
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Oct 3, 2013 at 14:52 comment added Yassine Guerboussa You are right. I will remove the last question, to concentrate on the first one.
Oct 3, 2013 at 14:11 comment added Derek Holt Surely, if $N$ is nonabelian, then the inner automorphism of $G$ induced by conjugation by a non-central element of $N$ will act trivially on $G/N$ but not on $N$, so your hypotheses cannot hold.
Oct 3, 2013 at 12:28 history asked Yassine Guerboussa CC BY-SA 3.0