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Dec 7, 2013 at 21:28 vote accept Michael Blondin
Nov 29, 2013 at 13:08 comment added KConrad Set $\langle v,u\rangle = e^{2\pi i(v \cdot u)/q}$. Then $v \cdot u = 0 \bmod q$ if and only if $\langle v,u\rangle = 1$. Each character of the finite abelian group $({\mathbf Z}/q{\mathbf Z})^n$ has the form $v \mapsto \langle v,u\rangle$ for a unique $u \in ({\mathbf Z}/q{\mathbf Z})^n$. (The term used here is that the group $({\mathbf Z}/q{\mathbf Z})^n$ is "self-dual": it's isomorphic to its own character group.) In any finite abelian group $G$ we have the property $(H^{\perp})^{\perp} = H$ for all subgroups $H$ of $G$. Try Terras, "Fourier Analysis on Finite Groups and Applications".
Nov 29, 2013 at 12:07 answer added David Wilding timeline score: 2
Sep 30, 2013 at 8:16 answer added Marc Palm timeline score: 2
Sep 29, 2013 at 20:34 review First posts
Sep 29, 2013 at 20:36
Sep 29, 2013 at 20:19 history asked Michael Blondin CC BY-SA 3.0