Timeline for Is there an asymptotic formula for an inverse function of the binomial coefficient?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
11 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Sep 30, 2013 at 14:02 | vote | accept | CommunityBot | ||
| Sep 28, 2013 at 11:37 | comment | added | user2529 | Michael, you are right. With Liviu's answer, I see that I can write down the Taylor expansion of $n_0(\epsilon)$. | |
| Sep 28, 2013 at 3:42 | vote | accept | CommunityBot | ||
| Sep 30, 2013 at 14:02 | |||||
| Sep 28, 2013 at 1:10 | answer | added | Brendan McKay | timeline score: 3 | |
| Sep 27, 2013 at 19:36 | answer | added | Liviu Nicolaescu | timeline score: 2 | |
| Sep 27, 2013 at 17:04 | comment | added | Michael Renardy | Why is this a difficulty? You expand f(n)-1 in powers of 1/n, and then you want to expand 1/n in powers of f(n)-1. This is what the inverse function theorem does for you. | |
| Sep 27, 2013 at 16:15 | answer | added | Vidit Nanda | timeline score: 2 | |
| Sep 27, 2013 at 16:02 | comment | added | user2529 | Yes, the asymptotic for $f(n)$ can be found. The difficulty is in finding an asymptotic for inverse function $n_0(\epsilon)$. | |
| Sep 27, 2013 at 15:40 | comment | added | Michael Renardy | For fixed k, this is a rational function of n. The asymptotics for $n\to\infty$ is therefore quite straightforward. | |
| Sep 27, 2013 at 15:24 | history | edited | user2529 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Sep 27, 2013 at 15:11 | history | asked | user2529 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |