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Sep 26, 2013 at 9:07 vote accept Tomasz Lenarcik
Sep 26, 2013 at 8:26 history edited Tomasz Lenarcik CC BY-SA 3.0
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Sep 26, 2013 at 2:29 comment added Marguax It is not necessary to assume $k = \overline{k}$ if allowing any characteristic; separably closed is enough. In char. 0 "real closed" is enough; e.g., the conclusion holds for $k = \mathbf{R}$. By the way, why do you highlight points of infinite order? That doesn't seem germane, since every nontrivial torus over a field $k$ not algebraic over a finite field (even such a $k$-torus with no nontrivial proper $k$-subtori) contains a $k$-point generating a Zariski-dense subgroup, so one cannot produce a 1-dimensional smooth closed $k$-subgroup by using any old point of infinite order.
Sep 26, 2013 at 0:21 comment added Jim Humphreys As indicated in the answers, your language is too loose to be clear: the meaning of "linear group defined over some field" needs to be made more precise, at which point the question is easy to answer.
Sep 25, 2013 at 23:36 answer added David E Speyer timeline score: 11
Sep 25, 2013 at 23:25 answer added abz timeline score: 7
Sep 25, 2013 at 21:30 history edited Tomasz Lenarcik CC BY-SA 3.0
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Sep 25, 2013 at 21:04 answer added Daniel Loughran timeline score: 11
Sep 25, 2013 at 20:53 review First posts
Sep 25, 2013 at 21:06
Sep 25, 2013 at 20:35 history asked Tomasz Lenarcik CC BY-SA 3.0