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Sep 21, 2013 at 22:52 comment added Lucia I don't understand this answer either! If $k_0=p^{k_1}$ then except for some trivial cases, it cannot be that $k_0+k_1-1$ is a power of $p$. So I don't understand what ``proceeding in this fashion" means.
Sep 21, 2013 at 18:27 history answered Vidit Nanda CC BY-SA 3.0