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Sep 24, 2013 at 6:07 vote accept CommunityBot
Sep 24, 2013 at 6:07 vote accept CommunityBot
Sep 24, 2013 at 6:07
Sep 24, 2013 at 3:37 vote accept CommunityBot
Sep 24, 2013 at 6:07
Sep 21, 2013 at 13:22 answer added Asaf Karagila timeline score: 5
Sep 21, 2013 at 13:19 answer added Joel David Hamkins timeline score: 8
Sep 21, 2013 at 12:55 comment added user36136 Ok. What about question (2)?
Sep 21, 2013 at 12:25 comment added Miha Habič It is consistent that the answer to Question 1 is no. This would be the case, for example, if $V$ was obtained by adding two mutually generic Cohen reals $c_1,c_2$ to $L$. Then $L[c_1]$ and $L[c_2]$ are incomparable. On the other hand, if $V=L$, the answer is obviously yes.
Sep 21, 2013 at 11:13 history asked user36136 CC BY-SA 3.0