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Nov 26, 2018 at 0:22 comment added darij grinberg @WillSawin: Ah! I didn't realize you could do the invertibility check already in $\mathbb{F}_3\left[a\right] / \left(a^3-a\right)$. Nice trick.
Nov 25, 2018 at 23:46 comment added Will Sawin @darijgrinberg If we know $a^3=a$ then to check a polynomial in $a$ is a unit, it suffices to check it is invertible for $a=0, 1, -1$ as then it is invertible in the formal ring $\mathbb F_3[a]/(a^3-a)$. One can easily check that for these polynomials. It should also be possible to check directly that they are their own inverses by squaring and dividing by $a^3-a$.
Nov 25, 2018 at 20:36 comment added darij grinberg I am slow today. Why is every element a sum of two units in the characteristic-$3$ case?
Nov 25, 2018 at 20:34 comment added darij grinberg Oh, I see why the ring decomposes. Namely, the Chinese Remainder Theorem factors the ring $\mathbb{Z} / \left(n+1\right)! \mathbb{Z}$ into a product of $\mathbb{Z} / p^k \mathbb{Z}$'s; if we take the idempotents in this ring corresponding to this factorization and send them canonically into our ring $R$, then the resulting idempotents in $R$ split $R$ into a corresponding product of $\mathbb{Z} / p^k \mathbb{Z}$-algebras.
Nov 25, 2018 at 20:31 comment added darij grinberg Hi Will, I've just realized that the question I've posted at math.stackexchange.com/questions/3013336 is rather close to the question you've drive-by-answered in your EDIT. But I don't understand how you answered it. Why does the ring decompose as a product of $p$-power parts? (As a $\mathbb{Z}$-module, it does decompose this way, because the Chinese Remainder Theorem factors the ring $\mathbb{Z} / \left(n+1\right)! \mathbb{Z}$; but as a ring?) And how do you get $z^p - z = 0$ ?
Sep 19, 2013 at 6:50 vote accept CommunityBot
Sep 18, 2013 at 22:57 history edited Will Sawin CC BY-SA 3.0
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Sep 18, 2013 at 22:02 comment added user40021 The first two lines are very very nice. I wonder what happens if every element is a sum of three mutually commuting idempotents. Do you have any idea?
Sep 18, 2013 at 21:32 comment added Harry Altman Also, it's probably worth noting at the end that the converse holds: Given such a ring as $R\times S$, where $R$ is characteristic 2 and $S$ is characteristic 3, we can decompose $(x,y)$ as $(x,y^2)+(0,y-y^2)$, and both summands here are idempotent.
Sep 18, 2013 at 21:30 comment added Harry Altman A question: Why is $1-a^2$ invertible? I see how to invert $a^2+a-1$, since $(a^2+a-1)(1-a-a^2)=1$, but not $1-a^2$. (Of course ultimately this is irrelevant as we can also show commutativity by other means.)
Sep 18, 2013 at 21:07 comment added Benjamin Steinberg @user40021, I give the proof in the comments below my answer.
Sep 18, 2013 at 20:55 comment added user40021 How do you conclude that "the ring is a product of a ring of characteristic 3 and a ring of characteristic 2" ?
Sep 18, 2013 at 18:36 comment added Benjamin Steinberg Ok, I found the trivial proof.
Sep 18, 2013 at 18:30 comment added Benjamin Steinberg @ClémentdeSeguinsPazzis, True. Now we need the one line proof that avoids going through reduced rings etc.
Sep 18, 2013 at 18:23 comment added Clément de Seguins Pazzis It is noteworthy that the property is actually equivalent to having $\forall z \in R, \; z^3=z$ !
Sep 18, 2013 at 18:10 comment added Benjamin Steinberg @WillSawin, I just gave what I assume is an equivalent answer at the same time.
Sep 18, 2013 at 18:07 history edited Will Sawin CC BY-SA 3.0
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Sep 18, 2013 at 18:01 history edited Will Sawin CC BY-SA 3.0
added 676 characters in body
Sep 18, 2013 at 17:54 comment added Benjamin Steinberg Ok, I had falsely assumed every subdirect product is direct for these rings. (I fixed my comment).
Sep 18, 2013 at 17:50 comment added Clément de Seguins Pazzis Benjamin, there are subdirect products of division rings that are not direct products of division rings. Consider the subring of $(\mathbb{Z}/3)^\mathbb{N}$ consisting of the ultimately constant sequences. It is not a direct product of copies of $\mathbb{Z}/3$.
Sep 18, 2013 at 17:46 comment added Benjamin Steinberg In fact, rings satisfying z3=z are I believe subdirect products of division rings. Since the only characteristic 3 division ring where each element is a sum of 2 commuting idempotents is Z/3, we get that the answer is products of copies of Z/2 and Z/3.
Sep 18, 2013 at 17:29 comment added Clément de Seguins Pazzis If the ring has characteristic 3, then your equation yields $z^3=z$ for all $z$ in the ring, which classically yields that the ring is commutative.
Sep 18, 2013 at 16:31 history answered Will Sawin CC BY-SA 3.0