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Sep 20, 2013 at 15:14 comment added Asaf @M. Gonzalez, usually the decomposition is written as $\mu=\mu_{a.c}+\mu_{sing}+\mu_{d}$, as (for example) the Cantor measure is not atomic, but not a.c. wrt to Lebesgue. Anyways, as the Tauberian theorem usual proof involves analysing a suitable summation kernel via harmonic analysis, it seems profitable to try to attack the problem you're facing via Fourier transform on $L^1(G)$ (I think that maybe Kauffman did work in those lines). Detecting atoms in measure via its Fourier transform can be done via the so-called Wiener's lemma.
Sep 20, 2013 at 6:38 comment added M.González @Asaf, the decomposition I considered is $\mu=\mu_d +\mu_c$, discrete part plus continuous part. Then the continuous (no atoms) part can be decomposed in absolutely continuous plus singular continuous.
Sep 19, 2013 at 21:03 comment added Asaf @M. Gonzalez, the Lebesgue decomposition statement you've written is false, as $\mu$ can be decomposed as a.c. part plus a singular part, but the singular need not be atomic. It can be for example a Cantor measure, or any measure of dimension less than $m$, but need not be discrete.
Sep 17, 2013 at 7:21 comment added M.González CONTINUATION: It was proved by R. Doss [Studia Math. 45 (973), 111-117] that for every continuous measure $\mu$ there exists a non absolutely continuous measure $\mu$ such that $\mu *\nu$ is absolutely continuous. Therefore a measure satisfying the tauberian property has non-zero atomic part.
Sep 17, 2013 at 7:14 comment added M.González Every $\mu\in M(G)$ can be decomposed as $\mu= \mu_d + \mu_c$ where $\mu_d$ is the discrete (atomic) part and $\mu_c$ is the continuous part (no atoms).\newline
Sep 16, 2013 at 14:49 comment added M.González $(M(G),*)$ is a commutative Banach algebra. $\mu$ invertible means that there is $\nu$ such that $\mu * \nu =\delta_e$, where $e$ is the unit of $G$ ($\delta_e$ is the unit of $M(G)$), and $\mu_2$ a.c. wrt m means $A$ Borel subset of $G$ and $m(A) =0$ implies $\mu_1(A)=0$; equiv., there is $f_1 \in L_1(m)$ such that $d\mu_1 = f_1\cdot d m$.
Sep 16, 2013 at 13:14 comment added Asaf What is the definition of invertible measure? and what do you mean by $\mu_{2}$ to be a.c? wrt to $m$?
Sep 16, 2013 at 6:46 history edited M.González CC BY-SA 3.0
added complementary question.
Sep 15, 2013 at 18:09 history asked M.González CC BY-SA 3.0