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Feb 4, 2010 at 22:37 comment added Charles Siegel Yeah, once you actually know what the contrapositive is, this is entirely trivial.
Feb 4, 2010 at 21:53 comment added user3795 Qiaochu, I meant the easier direction (the forward direction can be adapted from a textbook or the Wikpedia page mentioned below). Charles, thanks. I had been playing around with that kind of idea, but got turned around about what the contrapositive actually was in this case. Too many negatives with IRreducible.
Feb 4, 2010 at 21:32 answer added Victor Miller timeline score: 1
Feb 4, 2010 at 21:26 comment added Charles Siegel Shanest, here's a quick argument for you, if you want irreducible in $F[x]$ implies irreducible in $D[x]$. Let $f\in D[x]$. Assume it factors as $f=gh$ in $D[x]$. Then it factors as $f=gh$ in $F[x]$. This is actually true regardless of primitivity, which you need for the other direction, as Qiaochu mentioned. The proof I'm giving you proves the contrapositive, instead of irred in $F[x]$ implies irred in $D[x]$ it argues that reducible in $D[x]$ implies reducible in $F[x]$ which is equivalent.
Feb 4, 2010 at 20:49 comment added Qiaochu Yuan Being irreducible in the quotient field automatically implies being irreducible in the domain. Are you sure you don't mean the other direction? In either case, this is a standard exercise (first show that the product of two primitive polynomials is primitive) called Gauss's lemma.
Feb 4, 2010 at 20:46 history asked user3795 CC BY-SA 2.5