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Sep 9, 2013 at 11:21 vote accept Peter Crooks
Sep 9, 2013 at 5:48 answer added Geordie Williamson timeline score: 3
Sep 8, 2013 at 14:54 comment added Peter Crooks Hi Allen, that is a good idea. I have added a question at the end. If Geordie posts his comment as an answer, I will definitely accept it.
Sep 8, 2013 at 14:51 history edited Peter Crooks CC BY-SA 3.0
question added
Sep 8, 2013 at 6:39 comment added Allen Knutson It occurs to me that you don't have a question. Maybe you could ask one, such that Geordie's comment could become an answer.
Sep 7, 2013 at 17:48 comment added Geordie Williamson Juteau studies this situation in detail (when P is the parabolic corresponding to the stabilizer of the highest root) in arxiv.org/abs/0704.3417. His main concert is to do it integrally, when the hard Lefschetz theorem only tells you part of the story. He finds a very satisfactory description of the middle cohomology in terms of the root system.
Sep 7, 2013 at 16:01 comment added Allen Knutson If it comes from a regular dominant weight then it's a hyperplane class, and Hard Lefschetz will tell you it's injective up to middle dimension. The highest root usually isn't $P$-regular. Probably you'd want to think about fibering $G/P$ over $G/P'$ where the highest root is $P'$-regular, i.e. in the interior of the wall $(T^*_+)^{W_P}$ of the Weyl chamber.
Sep 7, 2013 at 15:28 comment added Peter Crooks Thank you, that is very helpful! For my purposes, it suffices to know this up to sign. I'll now try to use the Gysin sequence to find $H^*$ of the circle bundle. It would be nice if taking the cup product with the first Chern class were injective (on sufficiently low-degree cohomology), but I think this will depend heavily on the weight. I'll need to think about this carefully.
Sep 7, 2013 at 15:05 comment added Allen Knutson Definitely your Euler class definition (which I would rather call first Chern class, for no strongly arguable reason) gives a $W$-equivariant morphism from $(T^*)^{W_P}$ to $H^2(G/P)$, indeed to $H^2_G(G/P)$, so your guess must be right up to a multiple. For the inverse take your $G$-equivariant line bundle $L$ to $wt(L|_{P/P})$, so the multiple must be $\pm 1$, which is good enough I hope.
Sep 7, 2013 at 12:29 history asked Peter Crooks CC BY-SA 3.0